安徽省阜南县2023-2024高一上学期期中教学质量调研英语试题（含答案无听力音频含听力原文）

绝密★启用前
阜南县 2023——2024学年度高一教学质量调研
英 语
考生注意：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。 回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. Whose raincoat is that
A. The man speaker's. B. The woman's. C. The woman's brother's.
2. What will the woman get
A. Free things. B. Extra money. C. Cheap things.
3. How much does the woman ask now
A. $500. B. $490. C. $450.
4. What does the man love
A. Tennis. B. Soccer. C. Volleyball.
5. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a school. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.
第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5 分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When should the dinner be ready
A. At 5:00. B. At 5:30. C. At6:30.
7. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Set the table. B. Come on time. C. Believe in her.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What will the man do tonight
A. Go dancing. B. Exercise outdoors. C. Watch a soccer match.
9. Who does the woman want to go with
A. Bob. B. Mary. C. The woman's brother.
听第8段材料,回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. What club will the woman probably join
A. The art club. B. The photography club. C. The basketball club.
11. What is Bill good at
A. Drawing. B. Playing basketball. C. Singing.
12. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Workmates. B. Classmates. C. Teacher and student.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does the woman want to do
A. Lose weight. B. Improve health. C. Become an athlete.
14. Which part of the woman does the trainer want to train
A. Her legs. B. Her heart. C. Her stomach.
15. How long should the woman walk in total
A. For 10 minutes. B. For 20 minutes. C. For 40 minutes.
16. How often should the woman take walks
A. Every day. B. Every week. C. Every month.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker
A. A student. B. A doctor. C. A teacher.
18. How many physical activities does the speaker suggest in the speech
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
19. Which habit helps organize your thoughts and goals
A. Going for a walk. B. Keeping diaries. C. Taking deep breaths.
20. What is the speech about
A. Ideas on dealing with stress.
B. Where the stress comes from.
C. How stress influences students.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Welcome to the Following Art Activities
Family Zone
Sunday, October 1, 1 p. m.—4 p. m.
Families are invited to visit the MFAH Family Zone. You’ll find attractive activities with coloring sheets, color ed pencils, books, and more. Knowledgeable professionals(专业人员) are on hand to help answer questions about the works of art on show.
Happy Hour Thursday
Thursday. September 28. 5 p. m.——8 p. m.
Happy Hour Thursday is the place to be! Meet your friends at the MFAH for the best night of the week. Explore the campus, visit the galleries(画廊), and get a drink at the public house (cash only).
General admission is free on Thursday, and the Museum is open late.
Art Bites I American Painting and Sculpture
Thursday. October 5.6 p. m.——6:30 p. m.
A little art can go a long way! Visit the galleries and enjoy the art. The focus of this Art Bite tour is on American painting and sculpture. Art Bite tours are 30 minutes long and are part of the Happy Hour Thursday festivities at the Museum. This guided tour is included with general admission, w hich is free on Thursdays.
Glassell Studio School
Courses in art are offered the fall, spring, and summer
The Glassell Studio School offers courses in art history and studio arts for adults ages 18 and older of all skill and experience levels. Studio courses and workshops are available( 可得到的) in various forms of media, including painting, drawing, printmaking, digital and film photography, 3D design, and more. Courses are offered in the fall, spring, and summer semesters. Sign up for the next semester below.
21. What can you do when visiting Family Zone
A. Have a drink with your family. B. Take a course to learn art skills.
C. Put your own artworks on show. D. Ask experts for information about art.
22. What do Happy Hour Thursday and Art Bites have in common
A. They last 30 minutes. B. They are free on Thursdays.
C. They are held at night. D. They only accept cash.
23. Which of the following holds art classes
A. Art Bites. B. Family Zone.
C. Glassell Studio School. D. Happy Hour Thursday.
B
A Norwegian woman and her Nepali Sherpa guide have completed the fastest climb of the world's 14 highest mountains. Kristin Harila, aged 37, and her guide Tenjen Sherpa, aged 35, reached the top of the final mountain, K2, last Thursday.
All the tops the two reached are above 8,000 meters, said Karrar Haidri, the secretary at the Pakistan Alpine Club. They did it in 92 days. The former record-holder, Nirmal Purja, a Nepali-born British citizen. climbed the 14 peaks(顶峰) in 189 days in 2019. Most mountain climbers spend years trying to climb the world's greatest peaks.
Both climbers topped Shishapangma in the Tibet area of China on April 26. They have since climbed Everest, Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, Makalu, Cho Oyu, Dhaulagiri, Manaslu, and Annapurna in Nepal before going to Pakistan, where they climbed Nanga Parbat, Gasherbrum I, Gasherbrum II and the Broad Peak before topping K2. The company Seven Summit Treks(SST)provided support for the climbers’ efforts.
Garrett Madison of the U. S.-based Madison Mountaineering company is also on K2, leading a different group. He said the climbers used a window of good weather to go to the top of the mountain. “They have done it a short while ago,” Madison told the media, adding that the Norwegian woman was “extremely strong mentally and physically.”
Harila first planned to break the record and climb all 14 top peaks in 2022. However, China confined foreign climbers because of the safety requirement, so Harila was unable to climb two of the 14 peaks.
K2 has one of the most dangerous records for mountaineers, with most deaths happening on the return down. Any wrong move can cause a snowslide(雪崩), and kill. Only a few hundred climbers have successfully reached its top.
And one more climber made that list and set another record on Thursday, reported SST director Tashi Lakpa Sherpa. Seventeen-year-old Nima became the youngest person to climb K2, Tashi said.
24. Which is the key to setting the mountain climbing record for Harila and Sherpa
A. The way they chose to climb mountains.
B. The number of mountains they climbed.
C. The time they spent in climbing mountains.
D. The heights of the mountains they climbed.
25. What does the underlined word “confined” in paragraph 5 probably mean
A. Stopped. B. Encouraged. C. Guided. D. Preferred.
26. Which of the following statements matches K2
A. It may cause life-risks to its climbers.
B. It is locked down for some months a year.
C. It is the highest among the 14 mountains.
D. It is the most popular among climbers.
27. What can be learned about Harila and Nima
A. They climbed the mountains together.
B. They are the new world record makers.
C. They climbed fourteen high mountains.
D. They used good weather to climb K2 successfully.
C
Five seconds are left on the clock. The ball is passed from one player to another. The athletes move quickly past opponents(对手). In the final second, a player scores the winning goal. What sets this match apart The players are in wheelchairs.
Wheelchair rugby is played in more than 25 countries around the world, with men and women competing equally. It is also a sport in the Summer Paralympics, the world’s second-largest sporting event after the Olympics.
The sport's rules and equipment are different from traditional rugby, which has 15 players on an outdoor field and kicking methods that are similar to football in the United States. Wheelchair rugby is played indoors on a small hardwood court. Only four players from each 10-member team are on the court at the same time. In wheelchair rugby, the ball is smaller than a traditional rugby ball and round instead of oval(椭圆形). This makes it easier to carry on one’s knee. It's also easier to catch, which is important because some players struggle with hand movements.
In wheelchair rugby, the aim is to carry the ball across the goal line. Instead of kicking other players along the way, the athletes crash with each other in order to kick the ball out.
In New Zealand, the All Blacks, the traditional rugby team, are widely known. But not everyone knows about the Wheel Blacks, who travel across the country and internationally to compete.
Members of this great team won the gold medal in the 2004 Paralympic Games and the third medal in the 2019 Asia-Oceania Championships.
The team captain encourages everyone to find a sport they love, no matter what limitations(限制) they may have. “In any sport that you’re wanting to try,” he said, “just go for it. Don’t be afraid to push the limit."
28. What is special about the match introduced in the text
A. It is very competitive. B. There's something wrong with the players' body.
C. Men and women compete together. D. It receives great attention.
29. What does paragraph 3 mainly talk about
A. The history of the game. B. The traditional rugby.
C. Different rugby balls. D. Differences between two kinds of sports.
30. What happens during the wheelchair rugby
A. Athletes run after each other. B. Athletes break the rules a lot.
C. Athletes knock into each other. D. Athletes kick other players wildly.
31. What does the captain encourage others to do
A. Try their best in the sport to win an honor.
B. Do more exercise to push their limit.
C. Take part in different sports if they have time.
D. Face limitations and do the sport they love.
D
The WMO says Earth just had its hottest summer ever. August of this year was the hottest August ever recorded with modern equipment since 1979. It was also the second hottest month ever recorded, behind only July 2023.
August was about 1.5 degrees Celsius warmer than pre-industrial averages(平均). That is the highest one that world leaders have said the world must not pass. Scientists, however, are more worried about temperature increases over many years and not just a few months.
So far, scientists said 2023 has been the second hottest year that it has recorded, behind only 2016. But daily August temperatures are higher than those recorded for the same period in earlier years. The WMO also said the world's oceans were the hottest ever recorded at nearly 21 degrees Celsius. Water covers more than 70 percent of the Earth's surface.
Scientists blame(把……归咎于) the heat on the burning of coal, oil and natural gas and the added influence from El Ni o for the warming climate. El Ni o is a warming of the southern Pacific Ocean that affects weather worldwide. It changes weather around the world and even more so in its second year.
Climatologist Andrew Weaver was not surprised by the numbers. He said governments have not taken global warming seriously enough. He expressed worry that the public will forget the problem when temperatures fall again.
While the world's air and oceans are setting records for heat, Antarctica(南极) continues to set records for low amounts(数量) of sea ice. “Antarctic sea ice cover is actually an area that has not been developed, and the global sea surface temperature is once again at a new record,”WMO's secretary-general, Petteri Taalas, said in a statement. Taalas added,“It is worth noticing that this was happening before we see the full warming influence of the El Nifio event.”
32. What can we know about the year 2016
A. It had the hottest August on record. 1 00B. Its temperature set a new record that year.
C. It had the most hot months that year. D. Its temperature passed the limit humans can bear.
33. What can be learned from paragraph 4
A. Causes of climate change. B. Harm of global warming.
C. Ways to stop global warming. D. Roles of the oceans.
34. What does Taalas think of the ocean temperature
A. It may be even more worrying. B. It remains unchanged these years.
C. It rises at a fixed speed every year. D. It has no clear influence on climate.
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Humans Are Responsible for Climate Change
B. Continuing Global Warming Worries Scientists
C. The Loss of Earth's Ice Cover Harms Humans
D. This Summer Has Been the Hottest on Record
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5 分,满分12.5 分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A simple and common way to water plants is to hold a garden pipe(管子) and let the water fall down directly on the plants and soil. This is a good choice that does not waste water. It also can help prevent plant disease. But a garden pipe is not the only way to water your plants.
The When and How of Watering
36 This lets the water go deeply into the soil before the weather gets too hot. If you water late in the day, the water will just evaporate(蒸发) from the surface. If you water in the evening,the plants stay too wet overnight.
How you water is just as important as when you water. If you water quickly every day, it does not help the roots, which can spread over 30 centimeters into the soil. Water the soil less often, but deeply. Be careful when watering very dry soil because the water will just run off without getting into the soil. 37
Collect and Reuse Water
One way to help keep costs low for watering is to use used water. Instead of emptying water out after boiling foods, keep it and reuse it to water plants. 38 You can also catch and use rainwater.
Choose Native Plants
Most gardeners just think about which plants look good and the plants’ sunlight needs. 39 Drought-resistant(抗旱的) plants should not be overwatered when trying to keep thirstier plants watered.
It is also best to use plants that are native(当地的) to the area where you live. These plants are likely to be resistant to drought. 40 After that, they can live on just rainwater except for during times of extreme heat.
A. Put more pipes around the plants.
B. But watering needs should be considered, too.
C. Just make sure the water does not have salt in it.
D. They just need watering for the first two years.
E. The best time to water your plants is in the morning.
F. Growing plants in containers usually needs much water.
G. Water your plants slowly and make sure the water is taken in by earth.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题；每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Recently an old friend reached out to me to ask about the success I've had in my life or at least what 41 success on social media and how I achieved it. Because we have the 42 goals——get in shape, get into music more seriously, and be good at 43 .
Though I haven't 44 reached my long-term goals yet, he's seen that I've made some progress on my journey to achieving these goals and wanted my 45 .
We had a(n) 46 on the phone about this for an hour and a half and it seemed like he was 47 by my experience at last. A week went by and he told me that he 48 a personal fitness class. He is also studying music, and often sends me some videos of him studying Chinese. He often 49 all of the progress he's making on social media.
I'm thankful for him giving me the 50 to give him suggestions, and I'm glad to see that he's spending the time and money 51 himself. He even posted recently about how happy he is with all the recent 52 in his life.
Even if you're still not where you want to be, there are a lot of people out there who 53 what you have and who are impressed with how far you've come. It's good to realize how far you've come, be 54 for what you have done, and recognize how much you can 55 others to achieve the same.
41. A. does with B. differs from C. looks like D. depends on
42. A. easy B. similar C. attractive D. special
43. A. basketball B. English C. running D. Chinese
44. A. completely B. simply C. regretfully D. comfortably
45. A. excuse B. purpose C. service D. advice
46. A. argument B. talk C. joke D. meeting
47. A. protected B. encouraged C. challenged D. questioned
48. A. signed up for B. took control of C. gave in to D. came up with
49. A. shares B. researches C. corrects D. remembers
50. A. ability B. method C. chance D. support
51. A. understanding B. balancing C. teaching D. improving
52. A. trouble B. changes C. experiments D. trade
53. A. admire B. realize C. regret D. compare
54. A. careful B. serious C. proud D. ready
55. A. expect B. agree C. choose D. influence
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
The term Xuan paper first appeared in On Famous Paintings through the Ages, a book 56 was written by Tang Dynasty(618——907) scholar Zhang Yanyuan. In the book, he described Xuan paper 57 a perfect carrier for writing and painting. Handma de Xuan paper from Jingxian county, East China's Anhui Province, 58 (list) as a gift to the imperial court(宫廷) for the highest quality during that period.
The traditional skill of 59 (produce) Xuan paper is demanding(要求高的). Sandalwood bark, a plant native to southern China, goes through 108 60 (step) together with rice straw(稻草) over a period of three years before it can be made into fine Xuan paper. 61 whole course is so difficult that even the most skilled workers can only do part of it.
The flow of ink decides the making of Chinese art, and Xuan paper is much 62 (good)than other paper with 63 (it) excellent ability to give full play to ink. Different materials during the paper making process can create different paper suited for artistic expression in freehand ink painting or writing.
Xuan paper has gone with the making of the Chinese artists for thousands of years. Unlike other forms of paper, Xuan paper is strong enough 64 (stand) harm brought by time. It is this 65 (strong) that has made the protections of many valuable works from ancient China possible.Paper making is the wisdom of the ancient Chinese, and Xuan paper is the top of paper making.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15 分)
假定你是校学生会主席李华，你校将于本周五举办主题为自然灾害(natural disaster)的讲座，请你为校英语广播站写一则通知。要点包括：
1.讲座时间及安排；
2.注意事项。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
The Student Union
第二节(满分25 分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It's been over a year since I started my job for neuropathy(神经病) treatments at a well-known healthcare center here in Oklahoma. Since then I seem to become very popular, shown nothing but love, kindness and consideration each time I arrive.
Anyway, two weeks ago I met a lady named Judith, who received neuropathy treatments there. She came here for treatments every a few days. She lived alone, without any children or family members around.
One day, I talked with a worker there. I told her I was once a caregiver and ran into some problems with my right leg after a terrible fall. That fall broke some bones in my right leg and left me with a large steel plate and 20 screws(螺丝).
Realizing my new challenges led me to have to make some personal changes. So I created some of my latest home projects: vegetables and gardens, chickens and ducks and other animals in my house like dogs, cats and birds. I was just sharing how I kept busy as part of my new exercise plan.
Then Judith wheeled over and politely interrupted(打断) and began asking about my animals but she was more interested in my birds. So I shared that I had several birds and she mentioned she had two new bird cages(鸟笼) that were given to her by her neighbor. And she had been hanging on to them and now she would like to give them away. Honestly, I could use them because the cage I use now was handmade but without any doors to move away waste. I felt like this offer from Judith was made for me.
注意：1.续写词数应为 150 个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
So l decided to get the cage from her house after her treatment. Later, Judith had an operation and needed someone to look after her.
阜南县2023—2024学年度高一教学质量调研
英语·答案
听力原文
Text 1
W: Your raincoat is almost the same as my brother's.
M: Really As a matter of fact, I just borrowed it from him.
Text 2
M: I'm here to save you some money. Just buy two boxes of chocolates, and I'll give you five free eggs.
W: I've got four boxes here. Does that mean I can get ten eggs
Text 3
M: How much are you selling the computer for
W: At the beginning, I was asking $500, but I'll ask for 10% less if you buy it from me today.
Text 4
W: I'm trying out for the tennis team and the volleyball team this term. What about you
M: I'm not going to try out for anything. I love soccer, but my teacher told me we don't have enough people to form a team.
Text 5
M: Madam, this sit-down restaurant is mostly for, uh…guests without small children. Perhaps you would be more comfortable at a supermarket.
W:Our daughter is very polite, and we want to let her experience health y food. Could you allow us in
Text 6
M: Linda, are you sure you can finish it by 5 o'clock The guests will start arriving at 5:30.
W: Don't worry, Ken. The tables, chairs, and food are all set. We've never let you down before, have we
M: That's true, you haven't. I'm just nervous. This dinner for the CEO is really important.
W: Ken, when you trust us, you trust confidence.
Text 7
W: Mike, what are you going to do tonight Do you want to go dancing
M: I'd love to, Laura, but I can't. I'm going to watch a soccer match with my brother.
W: You mean Bob
M: Yes. Hey, are you doing anything tomorrow We could go dancing then.
W: Tomorrow sounds fine. I'm going to work until five.
M: So let's go around six.
W: OK. Hey, why don't we ask Mary to go with us
M: Why not Later, maybe we can get some dinner.
W: Sounds great.
Text 8
M:Hey, Linda. I'm looking at this list of school clubs. There are so many choices! Which one are you going to choose
W: I like to draw, so maybe I'll join the art club. How about you, Bill
M: The photography club sounds like fun to me. But I don't have my own camera.
W: What a pity! Do you see the basketball club on the list And I know you really like playing basketball.
M: I do. But I'm not sure I play well enough to join the club.
W: Well, are you going to join any other clubs
M:Of course! I'm going to become a member of the school's singing team. You know how much I love to sing and I really sing well!
W: You're right. The singing team is perfect for you! Be sure and sign up before Friday.
M: OK.
Text 9
W: Excuse me. I'm new here. I want to get back into shape. Can you give me some advice
M:No problem. We get a lot of people like you here. So you are not alone. I'm Peter Smith, head trainer here. It's nice to meet you.
W: Hi, I'm Sally. So, where should I begin There are so many machines to choose from.
M: Well, I would suggest some basic exercises just to train your heart and some of those parts that have been out of use for a while.
W: So, should I get on this first
M: Yes. You should start by walking for 20 minutes, and then run slowly for 10 minutes before walking for another 20minutes.
W: Well, I can do that. How many times every month should I do it
M: Every month You should be asking how many times every day!
W: Wow, it looks like getting back into shape is going to be a big challenge. I hope I can find the time.
Text 10
M: Many people often feel stressed these days, especially for us students. If you don't want to go to the doctor's or ask our teachers for help, here I have some ideas to help you feel more active.
Medical studies show that the best way to deal with stress is through exercise. But not everyone has time for that,especially students. In this case, try doing some exercise such as push-ups. You could also practice some dance moves.Other exercises you could do are weight-lifting and rope-jumping. If you prefer to be outside, you could go for a walk in a park.
Another way you could deal with your stress is by writing down your problems and thoughts. You could make time to write in a diary every day, for example. You might find that making this a habit actually helps organize your thoughts and goals and keeps you thinking positively. Finally, take some time to take deep, slow breaths. It's easy, quick, and you don't need to stop your studies to do it.
(共 20 小题;每小题1.5分,满分 30 分)
1——5 CACBB 6——10 ACCBA 11——15 CBABC 16——20 AACBA
(共 20 小题;每小题2.5分,满分50 分)
21——25 DBCCA 26——30 ABBDC 31——35 DBAAD 36——40 EGCBD
(共 15 小题;每小题1分,满分 15 分)
41——45 CBDAD 46——50 BBAAC 51——55 DBACD
(共 10 小题;每小题1.5分,满分 15分)
56. which/that 57. as 58. was listed 59. producing 60. steps
61. The 62. better 63. its 64. to stand 65. strength
写作第一节(满分15 分)
One possible version:
Notice
To let students know more about natural disasters, our school will hold a lecture this Friday. The lecture will take place in the school hall at 2 pm on Friday. It will be presented by a group of experts, who will share their knowledge and experience with us. There will also be a Q & A session after the lecture, where you can ask any questions you may have.
You are supposed to arrive on time and be respectful to the speakers and your fellow students. Please also be mindful of your behavior during the Q&A session.
We look forward to seeing you all at the lecture.
The Student Union
评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于60 的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
7.内容要点可用不同方式表达，对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(13——15 分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档:(10——12 分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉1、2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档:(7——9分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档:(4——6 分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档:(1——3 分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分:(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
写作第二节(满分25 分)
One possible version:
So I decided to get the cage from her house after her treatment. I drove with Judith to her house. When we arrived there, she took out the two cages and gave them to me. I found the cages are large, strong and beautiful, just the kind I was looking forward to. I thanked her for her gifts. I was glad to take the cages home, and I couldn't wait to put the birds into their new home. The birds also seemed to enjoy their new home, and were hopping about ha ppily in it.
Later , Judith had an operation and needed someone to look after her. I thought this would be a good chance for me to repay her, so without hesitation I offered to take care of her for free. I know she would accept my help as she lived alone and had no children or relatives to care for her. It was I who helped her with her housework such as washing clothes,cooking and cleaning. Judith was very grateful for my help. I told her it was the right thing for me to do in return for her kindness.
评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 130的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性；
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(21——25 分)
1.与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档:(16—20 分)
1.与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档:(11—15 分)
1.与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
3.应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档:(6—10 分)
1.与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。
3.较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档:(1—5 分)
1.与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
2.语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
3.缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
不得分:(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。

转载请注明出处高中试卷答案网 » 安徽省阜南县2023-2024高一上学期期中教学质量调研英语试题（含答案无听力音频含听力原文）