高中试卷答案网高安市部分中学2023-2024学年高三上学期期中考试
英语
考生注意：
1.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
2.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题：每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What do we learn about Jack
A．He spoke to the boss.
B．He gave orders like a boss.
C．He worked there as a boss.
2．How many days is the woman older than the man
A．Three. B．Four. C．Seven.
3．What are the speakers probably doing
A．Adjusting a camera. B．Taking a walk. C．Making a film.
4．Where will the speakers meet
A．In the parking lot. B．Inside the main gate. C．In the woman’s office.
5．Where does the conversation probably take place
A．In a park. B．In a church. C．In a storehouse.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．How many people are there in the woman’s family
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five.
7．What is the name of the family dog
A．George. B．Suzy. C．Jake.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．How many things did the girl bring to the boy
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four.
9．Where did the boy have an accident
A．On the way back home.
B．On the way to an airport.
C．On the way to the hospital.
10．What did the boy dislike about the hospital
A．The food. B．The doctors. C．The nurses.
听第8段材料，回答第11至14题。
11．Who is the man buying the postcard for
A．Himself． B．His sister． C．His girlfriend．
12．Where does the conversation take place
A．In London． B．In Paris． C．In Venice．
13．Where can the man see the prices of the masks
A．In the middle of each mask．
B．On the back of each mask．
C．On the wall behind him．
14．What does the woman tell the man
A．The masks are very expensive．
B．The glass plates have been sent out．
C．They have a lot of chocolate to choose from．
听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。
15．Why did the team lose the first match
A．Two star players were injured.
B．The judges made terrible calls.
C．The opposing team was stronger.
16．Which match was particularly embarrassing for the man’s team
A．The first. B．The second. C．The final.
17．What has the man decided to do next
A．Go to cheer his team. B．Support another team. C．Watch chess online.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18．What is Mr. Reynolds like
A．Easygoing. B．Fun. C．Strict.
19．When will the students study reading comprehension
A．During the first term.
B．During the second term.
C．During the third term.
20．How many novels will the students read in the last three months
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑
A
Browse through our selected books. Whether you are a parent looking for a special gift or a teenager wanting to find a perfect book, we have what you need.
The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Quest to Save a Rain Forest Species
By Sandra Markle. Ages 8 to 10.
Woolly Monkeys spend most of their time high up in 150-foot-tall trees. That makes them difficult animals to count and to study. But cameras have provided valuable information and taken, as this book shows, amazing pictures. Experts now believe that Peru’s lowland monkeys and the waste they produce are necessary to the survival of the rain forest.
Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild
By Catherine Thimmesh. Ages 10 to 12.
The giant panda is much-beloved in China, but in the past 40 years, at least half of its places have been destroyed. Camp Panda tells about efforts to reintroduce the giant pandas into the wild so that they might have a future. As part of the efforts, people wear panda costumes that smell like pandas while weighing and measuring the young pandas. They aren’t supposed to get used to seeing and being around people, because people could bring a threat to them in the wild.
Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel
By Carl Safina. Ages 10 and older.
Carl Safina studied elephants in an African national park and killer whales off the coast of Washington state. He learned about their strong family bonds, the surprising ways they communicate and how they play and hang out with ome another. This book makes a strong case for protecting the ability of these animals to live freely.
Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction
By Nancy F. Castaldo. Ages 10 and older.
This book focuses on seven groups of animals—including whooping cranes, California condors and American alligators—that were brought back to healthy numbers by a lot of efforts. As she celebrates these successes, Nancy F. Castaldo also makes clear that dangers, such as the effects of climate change, still cloud the future of these creatures.
21．Which writer’s book talked about the most animal groups
A．Carl Safina. B．Nancy F. Castaldo
C．Catherine Thimmesh. D．Sandra Markle.
22．What do these four books focus on
A．The rights of animals. B．The change of climate.
C．The protection of rain forests. D．The protection of animals.
23．What’s the purpose of the author to write the text
A．To introduce four books. B．To get some writers known.
C．To describe some rare wild animals. D．To appeal to children to love animals.
B
Imagine this: you are twenty-one years old and a promising graduate student at one of the top universities in the world. One day, your doctor tells you that you have an incurable disease and may not have more than twelve months to live. How would you feel What would you do Here is what Stephen Hawking thought:
（There did not seem) much point in working on my PhD-I did not expect to survive that long. Yet two years had gone by and I was not that much worse. In fact, things were going rather well for me and I had got engaged to a very nice girl, Jane Wilde. But in order to get married, I needed a job,and in order to get a job, I needed a PhD．
Instead of giving up, Hawking went on with his research, got his PhD and married Jane. Nor did he let the disease stop him from living the kind of life he had always dreamt of. He continued his exploration of the universe and travelled around the world to give lectures. As his disease has disabled him, Hawking has to sit in his now-famous wheelchair and speak through a computer. He talked about his theories and thoughts on some of the greatest questions: What is time, how did the universe begin,and what exactly are black holes
Hawking became famous in the early 1970s, when he and American Roger Penrose made new discoveries about the Big Bang and black holes. Since then, Hawking has continued to seek answers to questions about the nature of the universe. In 1988, he wrote A Brief History of Time, which quickly became a best-seller. Readers were pleased and surprised to find that a scientist could write about his work in a way that ordinary people could understand. The book sold more than 5.5 million copies in 33 different languages.
24．According to the quote in paragraph 2, when was Stephen Hawking told about his disease
A．Twelve months earlier. B．When he was getting married.
C．Two years earlier. D．When he met Jane Wilde.
25．Why did Stephen Hawking think: “There did not seem much point in working on my PhD ”
A．Because there was no point in being a PhD． B．Because he thought he would die soon.
C．Because there was no hope of being PhD． D．Because he had no place to work.
26．What made Hawking known to the world in 1970s
A．His book A Brief History of Time. B．His discovery about the Big Bang and black hole.
C．His fighting against the disease. D．His lectures to university students.
27．What can we learn from Steven Hawking
A．Where there is a will,there is a way. B．Every road leads to Rome.
C．Practice makes perfect. D．Better late than never.
C
Everyone knows they feel amazingly good and refreshed after a good night’s sleep but now scientists have discovered it can help you to live longer too. According to a study in the US, healthy sleeping habits mean men can live almost five years longer, and women for two years. It also found that sleep improves our health and reduces the risk of heart disease.
However, the study by the American College of Cardiology(心脏病学)shows it’s not just about how long you sleep; the quality of your sleep is important, too. Dr Frank Qian, who led the study, said sleep must be restful. The researchers said that sleep of high quality for adults depended on five fundamental elements: getting seven to eight hours of sleep each night; having trouble falling asleep no more than twice a week; having trouble staying asleep no more than twice a week; not using medicine to get to sleep; and waking up feeling rested at least five days a week.
Each factor was given one point, with a maximum of five points for the highest quality of sleep. The researchers looked at the results of a survey of 172,321 people in the US that measured their health habits, including sleep, over five years. They found that people who had all five points were likely to live longer and lead healthier lives than those who had sleep difficulties.
According to the Sleep Charity, a good night’s sleep can improve people’s memory and immune(免疫)system. Dr Qian admits that no one’s sleep is perfect—everyone has a late or restless night sometimes. However, he said, “Even from a young age, if people can develop these good habits of getting enough sleep, making sure they are sleeping without too many distractions, which originate from daily troubles or noisy surroundings. And gradually it can greatly benefit their overall long-term health.”
The study was based on people reporting their own sleep habits rather than recording them scientifically, so this may have affected the results and more research is needed.
28．What can be inferred from Paragraph 1
A．People with bad sleep may always feel unsettled.
B．Good sleep can benefit mental and physical health.
C．People with good sleeping habits can recite knowledge better.
D．Healthy sleeping habits can prevent people from many diseases.
29．Which of the following may Dr Frank Qian agree with
A．Sleep’s quality is more vital than its length.
B．Sleep’s quality lies in five important factors.
C．People who meet five factors are bound to live much longer.
D．People with sleep difficulties are likely to have a bad memory.
30．Which of the following can replace the underlined word “distractions” in Paragraph 4
A．Pills. B．Assignments. C．Bothers. D．Routines.
31．What will be needed for the study to offer more convincing findings
A．The analyses of more samples. B．The survey of more sleep issues.
C．The study of more influential elements. D．The more scientific methods of research.
D
Dulse (掌状红皮藻) grows along northern, rocky coastlines of the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. And its colorful, soft leaves hide an amazing taste. “I think it is a food of the future,” says Chris Langdon, who has been studying dulse for more than ten years at Oregon State University in Portland. He has found new ways to grow it faster. It not only grows cheaply and easily, but also is rich in protein (蛋白质), Those qualities allow creative cooks to bring this unlikely treat to our favourite restaurants.
People need to seek out new foods because the world has so many mouths to feed. As of 2015, there were more than seven billion people on Earth, and by 2100 that number may double according to the UN. Feeding all of these people means not only improving the way food is grown, but also finding new foods. If nothing changes, within 35 years, the world’s population will be greater than the amount of food produced according to a report prepared by the Global Harvest Initiative.
Global warming is changing food production. Scientists say that rising temperatures will reduce the growth of important crops(作物) like wheat and corn. Developing countries will be hit the hardest. When crops fall, they will become more expensive. And since those foods are also used to feed animals like cows and pigs, meat prices will also rise.
All over the world, researchers are working around the clock to find out how to best feed more people in the world. And some surprising ideas have begun to come out. Two years ago, scientists made the first burger from meat grown in a lab, rather than taken from an animal. The project cost more than $ 300,000, but it’s a good start. Other researchers are developing crops that can grow well in the heat. Still others are finding ways to make meat animals produce more meat.
32．Why does the author mention the dulse in the first paragraph
A．To show a new study. B．To introduce a friend
C．To describe the Pacific. D．To lead in the topic.
33．What drives people to look for new foods according to the text
A．A rise in meat prices. B．An increasing population.
C．The polluted farmland. D．The serious waste of food.
34．What is the author’s attitude towards the first burger made from lab-grown meat
A．Doubtful. B．Uncaring. C．Defensive. D．Positive.
35．Which can be the best title for the text
A．New Ways to Grow Crops
B．A Sharp Fall in Crops Worldwide
C．Finding Foods for the Future
D．Reducing Food Prices for the Poor
第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分）
根据下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
There are some people who seem to always be surrounded by friends, and there are others who always seem to be standing on the outside, looking in at the crowds of friends. If you are one of the outsiders, it is time to break out of your shell and start making new friends. Here are some tips that will help.
36 . Nobody likes a phony (虚伪的人). In fact, if you aren’t yourself, others aren’t becoming friends with you. When the time comes that you feel comfortable enough to act like yourself again, you may not be well received, because you are a totally different person. 37 .
Use technology. There are all kinds of online groups you can get involved with. 38 .For instance, Leaflets is a great place to meet new people. It creates experiences people can join, and you get to meet like-minded people who share your interests.
Start with people you know. Reach out and contact acquaintances, and reconnect with old friends you haven’t seen in a long time. Don’t forget about friends of friends. You may connect with some really cool people just by hanging out with your friends and their friends. 39 . If you stay home, you aren’t going to meet people.
Keep in touch. 40 . With the Internet and social media, there is absolutely no need for that these days. Look up old friends and reconnect with them.
A．Be yourself
B．If you are invited to go out, go
C．Keep in touch with each other
D．Let people get to know the real you
E．Knowing others well is very important
F．Many are local groups that plan activities
G．All too often, people lose touch with one another
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分,满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A few weeks ago my family and I went on a trip by car. This has become our 41 on Sundays over the past several months of the pandemic (疫情). Over the past nine months, we had to stay indoors except on weekends. On a recent morning, we 42 about 30 minutes to Los Dinamos, a mountainous thickly forested national park.
I listened to the 43 of rushing water from the river below and the singing of birds 44 in the trees. I 45 the tiny hand of our 46 2-year-old daughter, who was glad to go out playing. And then I surprisingly 47 we were alone. In a city of millions, we had 48 ourselves to another world.
I often tell people what I 49 most about prepandemic life is the liveliness and excitement of the city. But I’ve come to realize that I also need these 50 on pine-needle-covered (铺满松针的) ways with my young daughters, 51 things they had never seen or calling out the 52 of the flowers we pass along the way. I 53 truly fresh air. I need to attract my kids and my husband ahead with promises of delicious food and a perfect 54 place where we could sit on the blanket and enjoy the food.
It’s a 55 that there’s life all around me, even if I can’t spend time mixing with others.
41．A．achievement B．experience C．arrangement D．habit
42．A．transported B．ran C．drove D．jumped
43．A．sound B．talk C．noise D．cry
44．A．losing B．quitting C．hiding D．flashing
45．A．turned B．held C．lifted D．preferred
46．A．excited B．anxious C．confident D．amazed
47．A．mastered B．argued C．realized D．arranged
48．A．attracted B．taken C．forced D．helped
49．A．survive B．track C．hate D．miss
50．A．walks B．events C．challenges D．source
51．A．cheating B．destroying C．exploring D．removing
52．A．tastes B．colors C．seeds D．fruits
53．A．exchange B．admire C．unearth D．need
54．A．exercise B．dance C．debate D．picnic
55．A．reminder B．wonder C．solution D．pity
第二节：（共10个小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
The 2022 Serbia’s Chinese Literature Readers’ Club held an activity themed by “The Translation of Chinese Contemporary Literature in Serbia” in the National Library of Po arevac in Serbia.
The event 56 (comprehensive) and systematically introduced to local readers the 57 (develop) and the translation of Chinese contemporary literature in Serbia. It increased Serbian readers’ understandings of Chinese literature and culture 58 (continue) to enhance people-to-people ties between China and Serbia.
59 activity was hosted by Vera Zaric, director of National Library of Po arevac. Mirjana Po arevac, an associate professor of Chinese language and literature, was the speaker. More than 30 people, including local college students, attended the lecture.
Library director Vera Zaric said that almost all Chinese contemporary literary works 60 (collect) by the library were translated into Serbian. It is hoped that the Chinese Literature Readers’ Club will bring Chinese literary works closer to local readers, and the library will continue to share excellent Chinese literary works 61 the readers. 62 (take) part in this activity, many members of the audience said they learned a lot about Chinese contemporary literature.
The Serbia’s Chinese Literature Readers’ Club has successfully held two literature exchange activities, 63 not only aimed to introduce more and better Chinese literary works to Serbian readers, but also intended to seek 64 (many) young translators from Serbia. It is hoped that through attending the club activities, more young Serbians will 65 (motivate) to read Chinese stories and understand Chinese culture.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
66．假定你是李华，外国朋友Robert发邮件询问你校开展课外活动的情况。请你给他回复邮件，内容如下：
1. 描述具体情况；
2. 表达感想。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Robert,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分 25分)
67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使其构成一篇完整的短文。
Thick snow covered around my car. Everything around me was blanketed in white. The light was fading as the sun set over the rocky peaks.
I was driving up a mountain and it was supposed to be a four-hour trip from Red River, to Durango. I inched along on a winding, unfamiliar road in a snowstorm. I was on my way to meet my friend Jane, who was visiting her family in Durango. She’d invited me to join them for the weekend. The fastest way to Durango from Red River would be this mountain road. I was so excited about the weekend that I left without checking the weather.
Thirty minutes into my drive, the snow had started. It was gentle snow at first. I thought about turning around. Because it hardly looked threatening, I continued. Now I regretted that decision. But it was too late. The road was too narrow and icy for me to turn around. The snow was getting worse. The only way out was forward, higher and higher into the mountains. The last bit of sunlight disappeared, and I couldn’t see anything beyond the few feet lighted by my headlights.
My cell phone had lost service as soon as I’d entered the mountain pass and was powered off. I couldn’t call for help. I had some bottled water in the car and the clothes in my luggage. Maybe I could find a place to pull over and wear more clothes until morning. Would that be enough to keep me warm all night How long would it take for someone to find me “Everything will be fine,” I whispered.
Then I noticed a pair of lights seemed to glow dimly (隐隐发光) through the snowstorm. I opened my eyes wide and then drove ahead. There they were. Tail-lights! There was a car in front of me! At least someone was here with me. “Focus on the lights, not your fear,” I told myself.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I could see the car’s tire tracks in my headlights.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
After leaving the narrow mountain road, I got closer and the car I followed stopped.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1．B
W:Do you get along well with Jack at the office
M:He ordered everyone about as if he were the boss there.
2．A
W: Would you mind if I ask how old you are
M: Fourteen, but I’ll be fifteen on May the seventh.
W: Oh! I’ll be fifteen on May the fourth.
3．C
W: “I used to love walking down these streets. Now, it feels like I’m a stranger in a child’s dream somewhere!”
M: All right, that’s a cut. Mandy, I love the emotion, but every time you say that last line, you look at the camera. OK, again from the top...
4．C
M: Do you want to meet me in the parking lot
W: I'd rather meet inside the main gate. It's too cold in the parking lot. You know what Why don't you just find me in my office
M: All right.
5．C
W: This is where we store everything before they get sent out to one of our five branches. If you have any questions, I’ll be in my office on the third floor.
M: I should be fine. Everything I need is in my employee brochure.
6．B 7．A
W: Hi, we want to rent a place in the city.
M: What kind of place are you looking to rent, and for how many people
W: Well, there is my husband and me, our two children and a dog.
M: Oh. I was going to recommend the ideal place in the north of the city, but they don’t allow pets.
W: George is part of the family. Suzy and Jake would be so up set if he couldn’t come with us.
M: Don’t worry. There are plenty more to choose from. How about somewhere near the city park
W: That would be great for George’s daily walk.
8．B 9．A 10．A
W: Hey, how are you feeling now
M: A lot better. Thanks for coming to visit me.
W: I brought you some flowers, and a get-well card. This is the fruit cake my mom made for you.
M: Wow, thank you so much. You know I will go home soon. I only broke my arm and hurt my head a bit.
W: Sounds painful. What exactly happened
M: Well, my family was returning home from a trip.
W: Did you hit anything with your car
M: Yeah, it was late at night and my dad was pretty tired from driving. Suddenly, we hit a deer.
W: Wow, how was your father
M: He also broke his arm but he’s OK now.
W: That’s good. So, what’s it like staying in a hospital
M: It’s not too bad. The doctors and nurses are both patient. But the food is terrible.
11．A 12．C 13．B 14．C
M: Hello, do you remember me I bought some glass plates from you yesterday.
W: Yes, you sent them to London...no, to Paris, right
M: That’s right. I thought I’d come back to buy some more souvenirs.
W: What did you have in mind
M: Well, first, I’d like to buy a few postcards. My sister always used to send a postcard to herself whenever she went anywhere. I want to do that, too.
W: We have plenty of postcards to choose from here.
M: OK. I heard that you might also have some of the masks that are made here in Venice.
W: Yes, we do. They’re on the wall behind you.
M: How much do they cost
W: The prices are clearly marked on the back of each mask. Would you like me to get one down for you to look at
M: Yes, I think I’d like the green mask in the middle.
W: Here you go.
M: I’ll take this one. I’d also like to buy some chocolate. It’s my girlfriend’s birthday today, and she loves chocolate.
W: We’ve got plenty to choose from here.
M: They look delicious. I think she’ll be pleased!
15．A 16．C 17．C
W: Hey! Have you been watching any of the World Cup soccer matches
M: Well, I was watching until my favorite team was knocked out of the first round of play.
W: What do you mean
M: Well, in the first match, two of their star players were out with severe injuries, so the rest of the players couldn’t keep up with the opposing team.
W: Well, that’s just life. Every team is going to have players out with injuries.
M: Yeah, but in the second match, the judges made some terrible calls, allowing the opposing team to slip by with a victory. And in the final match, our team was ahead until one of our players accidentally kicked the ball twice into his own goal. It was a total embarrassment for our team.
W: So, who are you supporting now
M: Ah, I won’t watch any more soccer. I’m determined to follow an online chess tournament.
W: What That is ridiculous.
18．C 19．B 20．A
Good morning, students. I’m Mr. Reynolds, your new English teacher. I just want to explain a few things before we get started. First, I don’t allow students to show up late to class. If you are late for over five minutes, you will be considered absent and receive zero points. If you have four absences, you will fail the class. Second, there will be absolutely no talking in my class. If you have a question, raise your hand until I call on you. Is that understood Now, let’s talk about your schedule. In the first term, we’ll be learning about writing and grammar. You will have one short test, one long exam, and two essays. In the second term, we’ll be studying reading comprehension. Over this three-month period, you will have one test per month, as well as a presentation. For the last three months, we’ll study literature. You must complete one individual presentation on a famous poet, read two novels, and study for your final exam. We have a long year ahead of us, boys and girls. Keep your heads down and study hard. Let’s have a good September!
21．B 22．D 23．A
21．细节理解题。根据文章最后一段第一句话“This book focuses on seven groups of animals—including whooping cranes, California condors and American alligators—that were brought back to healthy numbers by a lot of efforts.”（这本书聚焦于七类动物，包括百日鹤、加州秃鹰和美国短吻鳄，它们通过大量努力恢复了健康的数量。）可知，Nancy F. Castaldo所写的书中谈论的动物群体最多。故选B项。
22．细节理解题。结合文章内容，第一本书The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Quest to Save a Rain Forest Species是关于保护秘鲁低地猴子；第二本书Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild是关于大熊猫保护；第三本书Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel是关于大象和虎鲸的保护研究；第四本书 Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction是关于七个物种保护成果。因此，四本书的共同点都聚焦于动物保护。故选D项。
23．推理判断题。根据文章第一段第一句话和第二句话“Browse through our selected books. Whether you are a parent looking for a special gift or a teenager wanting to find a perfect book, we have what you need.”（浏览我们精选的书籍。无论您是寻找特殊礼物的父母，还是想要找到完美书籍的青少年，我们都能满足您的需求。）可知，本文是在详细介绍四本书。故选A项。
24．C 25．B 26．B 27．A
24．细节理解题。根据文章第二段“Yet two years had gone by and I was not that much worse.”可知，霍金的病已经过去两年了，但是病情没有恶化，所以霍金应该是两年前生病的。故选C项。
25．细节理解题。根据文章第一段“One day, your doctor tells you that you have an incurable disease and may not have more than twelve months to live.”和第二段“I did not expect to survive that long.”可知，霍金得了一种不治之症，活不过12个月，所以他认为博士学位对于他没有任何意义，因为不久之后就要死了。故选B项。
26．细节理解题。根据文章最后一段“Hawking became famous in the early 1970s, when he and American Roger Penrose made new discoveries about the Big Bang and black holes.”可知，在20世纪70年代初期，霍金和Roger Penrose对宇宙大爆炸和黑洞有了新的发现，从而让他们闻名于世。故选B项。
27．推理判断题。根据文章第三段“Nor did he let the disease stop him from living the kind of life he had always dreamt of. He continued his exploration of the universe and travelled around the world to give lectures.”和最后一段“Hawking became famous in the early 1970s, when he and American Roger Penrose made new discoveries about the Big Bang and black holes.”可知，霍金在疾病面前并没有屈服，过上了另一种生活，继续探索宇宙并且巡回演讲。同时，在20世纪70年代与Roger Penrose对宇宙大爆炸和黑洞又有了新发现。这些事情都证明了霍金“有志者事竟成”。故选A项。
28．B 29．B 30．C 31．D
28．推理判断题。根据第一段中“Everyone knows they feel amazingly good and refreshed after a good night’s sleep but now scientists have discovered it can help you to live longer too. According to a study in the US, healthy sleeping habits mean men can live almost five years longer, and women for two years. It also found that sleep improves our health and reduces the risk of heart disease.(每个人都知道，睡个好觉后，他们会感觉非常好，神清气爽，但现在科学家们发现，睡个好觉还能帮助你长寿。根据美国的一项研究，健康的睡眠习惯意味着男性可以多活近5年，女性可以多活两年。研究还发现，睡眠可以改善我们的健康，降低患心脏病的风险)”可知，好的睡眠习惯对人的心理和生理均有好处。故选B项。
29．细节理解题。根据第二段中“The researchers said that sleep of high quality for adults depended on five fundamental elements: getting seven to eight hours of sleep each night; having trouble falling asleep no more than twice a week; having trouble staying asleep no more than twice a week; not using medicine to get to sleep; and waking up feeling rested at least five days a week.(研究人员表示，成年人的高质量睡眠取决于五个基本要素:每晚睡眠七到八个小时;每周睡眠困难不超过两次;睡眠困难的:一周睡眠困难不超过两次的;不用药物入睡;每周至少有五天醒来时感觉精力充沛)”可知，睡眠质量取决于五个关键因素。故选B项。
30．词句猜测题。根据后文“which originate from daily troubles or noisy surroundings.(这些干扰来自日常的麻烦或嘈杂的环境)”可推知，画线词意思是“让人分心的事情”，和C项意思相近。故选C项。
31．推理判断题。根据最后一段“The study was based on people reporting their own sleep habits rather than recording them scientifically, so this may have affected the results and more research is needed.(这项研究是基于人们报告自己的睡眠习惯，而不是科学地记录他们的睡眠习惯，所以这可能会影响结果，需要更多的研究)”可知，接下来应该采用更加科学的方式进行研究。故选D项。
32．D 33．B 34．D 35．C
32．推理判断题。根据第一段““I think it is a food of the future,” says Chris Langdon, who has been studying dulse for more than ten years at Oregon State University in Portland.”（克里斯兰登说“我认为这是一种未来的食物。”，他在波特兰的俄勒冈州立大学研究掌状红皮藻超过了十年。）可知，对于掌状红皮藻的介绍是为了引出话题。故选D项。
33．细节理解题。根据第二段“People need to seek out new foods because the world has so many mouths to feed. As of 2015, there were more than seven billion people on Earth, and by 2100 that number may double according to the UN.”（人们需要寻找新的食物，因为世界上有很多人需要养活。截止2015年，在地球上有超过70亿人并且根据联合国的数据到2100年这个数字可能要翻倍。）可知，日益增长的人口迫使人们寻找新的食物来源。故选B项。
34．推理判断题。根据最后一段“The project cost more than $ 300,000, but it’s a good start.”（这个项目花费超过30万美元，但是它是一个好的开始。）可知，对这种由植物肉制作而成的汉堡，作者持肯定态度。故选D项。
35．主旨大意题。根据第二段“People need to seek out new foods because the world has so many mouths to feed.”（人们需要寻找新的食物，因为世界上有很多人需要养活。）及第四段“All over the world, researchers are working around the clock to find out how to best feed more people in the world.”（全世界的研究人员都在夜以继日地工作，以找出如何最好养活全世界更多的人。）可知，文章的主题就是寻找方法解决未来人类面对食品短缺的问题。故选C项。
36．A 37．D 38．F 39．B 40．G
36．根据下文“Nobody likes a phony (虚伪的人). In fact, if you aren’t yourself, others aren’t becoming friends with you.(没人喜欢虚伪的人。事实上，如果你不是你自己，别人就不会和你成为朋友。)”可知本段讲做真实的自己才能交到朋友，没有人喜欢虚伪的人。A项“做你自己”符合本段内容，故选A。
37．本段讲做真实的自己才能交到朋友。根据上文“When the time comes that you feel comfortable enough to act like yourself again, you may not be well received, because you are a totally different person.(当你觉得有足够的时间来做你自己的时候，你可能不会很好地接受，因为你是一个完全不同的人。)”可推断下文不但要做自己，还要让别人了解你，故D项“让人们了解真实的你”符合本段内容，与标题呼应。故选D。
38．本段讲使用技术结识更多的人。根据上文“There are all kinds of online groups you can get involved with.( 可以加入各种各样的在线团体。)”，可知是和团体相关，而F项“许多是计划活动的地方团体”，和上句紧密连接。故选F。
39．本段讲从你认识的人开始。根据上文“Reach out and contact acquaintances, and reconnect with old friends you haven’t seen in a long time. Don’t forget about friends of friends. You may connect with some really cool people just by hanging out with your friends and their friends. (主动联系熟人，和很久没见的老朋友重新联系。别忘了朋友的朋友。只要和你的朋友以及他们的朋友出去玩，你就能结识一些很酷的人。)”。可知本段是抓住任何机会去认识人，B项“如果你被邀请去，那就去。”与上句连接，与下句“如果你呆在家里，你就不会遇到人。”形成对比。故选B。
40．本段讲和朋友保持联系。根据下文“With the Internet and social media, there is absolutely no need for that these days.(有了互联网和社交媒体，现在绝对没有必要这么做了。)”可推断上文和下文形成对比，故G项“人们经常失去联系，讲述了现实中的一种现象。”与本段内容相符。故选G。
41．D 42．C 43．A 44．C 45．B 46．A 47．C 48．B 49．D 50．A 51．C 52．A 53．D 54．D 55．A
41．考查名词词义辨析。句意：在过去几个月的疫情中，这已经成为我们在周日的习惯。A. achievement成就；B. experience经历；C. arrangement安排，筹备；D. habit习惯。根据下文中的“Over the past nine months, we had to stay indoors except on weekends.(在过去的九个月里，除了周末，我们不得不待在室内。)”可知，在过去有疫情的几个月里，作者一家已经养成了每周末去开车旅行的习惯。故选D。
42．考查动词词义辨析。句意：最近的一个早晨，我们驱车约30分钟前往洛斯迪纳莫斯国家公园，那是一个多山、森林茂密的国家公园。A. transported运输，输送；B. ran跑；C. drove开车；D. jumped跳。根据上文中的“A few weeks ago my family and I went on a trip by car.(几周前，我和家人开车去旅行。)”可知，作者和家人开车去旅行。故选C。
43．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我听着下面河水奔流的声音和躲在树上的鸟儿的歌唱。A. sound声音；B. talk谈话；C. noise噪音；D. cry哭。根据空后的“of rushing water from the river below”可知，这里指流水的声音。故选A。
44．考查动词词义辨析。句意参考上题。A. losing丢失；B. quitting离开；C. hiding躲藏；D. flashing闪光。根据空后的“in the trees”可知，此处指鸟儿躲在树上。故选C。
45．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我牵着我们兴奋不已的两岁女儿的小手，她很高兴能出去玩。A. turned（使）转动；B. held抓，握；C. lifted举起；D. preferred较喜欢。根据空后的“the tiny hand of our _____6_____ 2-year-old daughter”可知，作者握着小女儿的手走路。故选B。
46．考查形容词词义辨析。句意参考上题。A. excited兴奋的；B. anxious焦急的；C. confident自信的；D. amazed惊讶的。根据句中的“who was glad to go out playing”可知，小女儿很高兴能出去玩耍，所以她应该是非常兴奋。故选A。
47．考查动词词义辨析。句意：然后我惊讶地意识到就我们自己在。A. mastered精通，掌握；B. argued争论；C. realized意识到；D. arranged安排，筹备。根据空后的“we were alone”可知，作者意识到只有他们一家人在这个地方。故选C。
48．考查动词词义辨析。句意：在这座拥有数百万人口的城市里，我们把自己带到了另一个世界。A. attracted吸引；B. taken带去，拿走；C. forced强迫；D. helped帮助。根据空后的“ourselves to another world”可知，作者他们把自己带到了另一个世界，take sb. to sth.意为“带某人去某地”。故选B。
49．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我经常告诉人们，疫情前的生活最让我怀念的是这座城市的热闹和刺激。A. survive生存，存活；B. track跟踪；C. hate讨厌；D. miss怀念。根据空后的“most about prepandemic life is the liveliness and excitement of the city.”可知，作者怀念疫情前这座城市的热闹和刺激。故选D。
50．考查名词词义辨析。句意：但我已经开始意识到，我也需要和年幼的女儿们在铺满松针的路上散步，探索她们从未见过的事物，或者呼唤我们沿途经过的花朵的味道。A. walks散步；B. events发生的事情，比赛项目；C. challenges挑战；D. source来源，出处。根据空后的“on pine-needle-covered (铺满松针的) ways with my young daughters”可知，这里指在铺满松针的路上散步。故选A。
51．考查动词词义辨析。句意参考上题。A. cheating欺骗；B. destroying破坏；C. exploring探索；D. removing去除。根据空后的“things they had never seen”可知，此处表示探索女儿们从未见过的事物。故选C。
52．考查名词词义辨析。句意参考第10题。A. tastes味道；B. colors颜色；C. seeds种子；D. fruits水果。根据空后的“of the flowers”可知，此处表示花朵的味道。故选A。
53．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我需要真正的新鲜空气。A. exchange交换；B. admire羡慕，钦佩；C. unearth挖掘，找到；D. need需要。根据空后的“truly fresh air”可知，此处表示久居城市的作者需要呼吸大自然中的新鲜空气。故选D。
54．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我需要提前通过承诺有美味的食物和完美的野餐场所来吸引我的孩子和丈夫，我们可以在这个野餐地点坐在毯子上享用食物。A. exercise锻炼；B. dance跳舞；C. debate辩论；D. picnic野餐。根据空后的“place where we could sit on the blanket and enjoy the food”可知，此处表示野餐地点。故选D。
55．考查名词词义辨析。句意：它提醒我，即使我不能花时间与他人交往，但我周围仍有生命。A. reminder提醒人的事物；B. wonder奇迹；C. solution解决办法；D. pity遗憾。根据空后的“there’s life all around me, even if I can’t spend time mixing with others”可知，作者认为一家人在疫情期间的旅行提醒自己，周围仍然有很多生命。故选A。
56．comprehensively 57．development 58．to continue 59．The 60．collected 61．with 62．Taking/Having taken 63．which 64．more 65．be motivated
56．考查副词。句意：这次活动向当地读者全面系统地介绍了在塞尔维亚中国当代文学的翻译作品和发展。and 连接并列成分，所以此处应该填入副词。故填comprehensively。
57．考查名词。句意同上。and连接并列成分，所以此处用名词development，和名词translation形成并列，the development of意为“……的发展”。故填development。
58．考查非谓语动词。句意：它提高了塞尔维亚读者对中国文学和文化的理解，继续加强中国和塞尔维亚之间的人文关系。分析句子结构可知，此处用不定式作目的状语。故填to continue。
59．考查冠词。句意：此次活动由波兰国家图书馆馆长Vera Zaric主持。此处用定冠词特指上文提到的活动。故填The。
60．考查非谓语动词。句意：图书馆馆长Vera Zaric说，图书馆收藏的几乎所有中国当代文学作品都被翻译成了塞尔维亚语。分析可知，句中已有谓语“were translated”，所以空处用非谓语。collect与其逻辑主语works构成被动关系，所以用过去分词。故填collected。
61．考查介词。句意：希望中国文学读者俱乐部”能使中国文学作品更贴近本地读者，图书馆将继续与读者分享优秀的中国文学作品。短语：share sth. with sb.“与……分享”，故填with。
62．考查非谓语动词。句意：（通过）参加这次活动，很多观众都说他们学到了很多关于中国当代文学的知识。分析可知，“_______(take) part in this activity, ”在句中为状语，take与其逻辑主语many members构成主动关系，所以用现在分词。若强调时间的先后，则用现在分词的完成式。故填Taking/Having taken。
63．考查定语从句。句意：塞尔维亚中国文学读者俱乐部成功举办了两次文学交流活动，这不仅是为了向塞尔维亚读者介绍更多更好的中国文学作品，也是为了寻找更多的塞尔维亚年轻翻译家。空处及之后的内容为非限制性定语从句，先行词为activities，空处指代activities, 在从句中作主语，所以用关系代词which，故填which。
64．考查形容词。句意同上。根据句意可知，此处应用形容词比较级，指从塞尔维亚寻找更多的年轻翻译家。故填more。
65．考查谓语动词。句意：希望通过参加俱乐部活动，更多的塞尔维亚年轻人能够积极地阅读中国故事，了解中国文化。分析句子结构可知，young Serbians是受到鼓舞，所以此处应用被动语态，will后用动词原形。故填be motivated。
66．Dear Robert,
I’m glad to have heard from you. You said you wanted to know about the out-of-class activities of our school. I’d like to take a normal day for example.
After morning reading, all students are required to participate in the morning running on the playground. Besides, another thirty minutes is arranged for us to have a break between classes, when we have regular sporting exercises, like playing badminton or jumping ropes with classmates. Spending a certain amount of time participating in sports can be an excellent way for us students to relax ourselves. It also helps us become well-rounded individuals.
Yours,
Li Hua
67．I could see the car’s tire tracks in my headlights. All I had to do was follow the tracks the rest of the way down the mountain. I drove slowly, keeping my wheels within the tracks every inch of the way. Soon I could see the lights of a town twinkling in the distance. The snow started to cover the tracks I was following. But both of us had made it.
After leaving the narrow mountain road, I got closer and the car I followed stopped. As I got closer, I saw it was a SUV. I pulled up beside it and rolled down my window. The driver of the car did the same. “Many thanks. I was really scared on my way. Fortunately, I followed you. It was your car’s light and tracks that gave me hope and encouragement.” The driver looked at me and smiled. “My pleasure. To tell you the truth I was also fearful at the heavy snow, but when I noticed there was a car behind me I felt much better.” In fact we hadn’t been alone on that mountain road at night.
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