2023-2024 学年上学期期中考试四校联考高一英语
答案
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节 听力理解 (共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
1-5 BABCB
第二节 听取信息 (共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
6. 8:15 (am) / eight fifteen (正确给 2分,错误不给分)
7. Come hom(e 写出一个单词给 1分,Come没大写扣 0.5,若写成 Come home from
school 也给满分)
8. a meeting (写出 meeting给 1分)
9. writing
10. classroom
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节 (共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
11-13 ABD 14-17 CDBC 18-21 BABD 22-25 BCAD
第二节 阅读填空 (每小题 2.5分,共 12.5分)
26-30 CGFEA
第三部分 语言知识与应用(共两节,满分 37.5分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5分)
31-35 BABCC 36-40 DCDDA 41-45 BADAC
第二节 单句填空(共 15小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
46. it 47. a 48. amazement 49. extremely pared
51. is scheduled 52. whom 53. powerful 54. of 55. arrangements
第四部分 写作(满分 42.5分)
第一节 句子考查(共 6小题,满分 17.5分,其中 56~61每空 0.5分, 62~64每
小题 3分)
56. sets an example
57. in spite of
58. It seems that
59. prefers to; rather than
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60. In order to get
61. Yesterday I visited the museum where my grandfather used to work 20 years ago.
【给分标准】Yesterday I visited the museum 做主句放句首写对得 1 分,关系词
where 1.5分,没删 there扣 1分,句式其他部分错误每个按 0.5扣.
62. It was when I was walking in the street that I recognized him in the crowd.
【给分标准】写出 It was…that给 1分;when I was walking in the street写对位置
给 1分;其他错误酌情扣分。
63. Mrs Brown recommended that he (should) take part in after-class/ after-school/
extra-curricular activities actively.
Mrs Brown recommended him to take part in after-class/ after-school/
extra-curricular activities actively.
【给分标准】 recommend that sb (should) do/ recommend sb to do 句型正确得 2
分;其他错误酌情扣分。
第二节 应用文写作(共 25 分)
参考范文
Dear Li Hua,
I’m terribly sorry to receive your letter asking me for advice with regard to your
confusion on English learning. Personally, there is no need for you to be so worried
and nervous. As a new senior student, it will take you sometime to adjust yourself to
the busy and high-pressure life. And I’ll try to offer some practical suggestions here.
First and foremost, it is of vital significance to keep calm and avoid being
worried. In addition, turning to teachers or classmates for help is also a wise choice,
for they may give you some practical and concrete proposals. Last but not least, to
improve your English in a short time, nothing is better than listening to some English
music or watching some English movie for you, which will provide a good learning
atmosphere.
Hopefully, my suggestions will be of some benefit to you. Look forward to your
good news.
Yours,
Emily
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2023-2024 学年上学期期中考试四校联考高一英语试卷
6-10的空格中。听录音前,你将有 10秒钟的阅题时间,录音读两遍。你将有 60秒钟的
考试时间:120 分钟 满分:150 分 作答时间。
命题人:刁珊珊 吴刚 翟艳青 张辉燕 审题人:张辉燕
注意事项: Eight o’clock Go to school
1. 答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名和考生号、试室号、座位号填写在答题卡上。用
2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。 When/ What At 6 Begin your class
2. 选择题每小题选出答案后,用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干 At 2:00pm.or 3:00pm 7
净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内的相应位置上;如需 On Thursday We need to stay longer for 8 .
改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 What do you study We study 9 , reading, math, gym.
Where do you eat lunch We eat in the 10 .
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 20分)
第一节 听力理解(两段共 5小题;每小题 2分,满分 10分)
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 50分)
每段播放两遍。各段后有几个小题,各段播放前每小题有 5秒钟的阅题时间。请根
据各段播放内容及其相关小题,在 5秒钟内从题中所给的选项中,选出最佳选项,并在 第一节 (共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
答题卡上将该项涂黑。 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和 D)中,选出最佳选项。
1. What is the man going to do this evening A
A. Go to a bookstore. B. See a play. C. Stay at the hotel. Animals were the real pioneers of space flight. Let us learn about some animals that
2. What does the woman suggest have been to space.
A. A comedy. B. A story. C. Amovie. 1. Fruit flies
3. What will the woman do On February 20, 1947, the United States sent some fruit flies into space to study the
A. Take them to the theatre. impact that cosmic radiation (宇宙辐射) might potentially have on astronauts in the future.
B. Book tickets for them. They chose flies because they are genetically similar to humans.
C. Thank the man for the tip. When they returned to Earth, the scientists found the flies alive, with no evidence of the
听第二段对话,回答第 4~5题。 effects of radiation.
4. What does the man like to do after work 2. Mice
A. Play table tennis and golf, and go for a run. Mice have long been used to find out more about how space travel will affect the human
B. Play tennis and golf, and go fishing. body. In fact, NASA has recently published a study of mice housed at the International Space
C. Play tennis and golf, and go for a run. Station. It shows that mice quickly adapt to microgravity (微重力) conditions.
5. How often does the man play golf The very first mouse went into space in 1950, reaching an altitude of 137km. However,
A. About once a week. B. About once a month. C. About once a year. unlike the fruit flies, the mouse died when the rocket broke into parts due to a parachute (降
第二节 听取信息(共 5小题;每小题 2分,满分 10分) 落伞) failure.
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3. Dogs so old that some stones were loose and falling. However, my idea to climb across those walls
Laika, a Russian homeless dog, went to space on November 3, 1957. She was picked up grew so strong that finally I had all my courage to enter the living room, where the adults had
on the streets and was thought suitable because she had a gentle temperament (性情 ) and gathered after Sunday dinner.
behaved well. The scientists also believed a homeless dog would be better at dealing with “I want to climb the stone walls.” I said. “Heavens, no! You’ll hurt yourself!” The
difficult conditions like microgravity than a pet dog. response was just as I’d expected. But before I left the room, I was stopped by my
Laika is famous for being the first animal to orbit (环绕……运行) the Earth. However, grandfather’s loud voice. “Now hold on just a minute.” I heard him say, “Let the boy climb
she never returned. the stone walls. He has to learn to do things for himself.”
4. Spiders “Go,” he said to me, “and come and see me when you get back.” For the next two and a
In 1973, two garden spiders called Anita and Arabella were used in an experiment to see half hours I climbed those old walls — and had the time of my life. Later I met with my
if they could still build webs in space. grandfather to tell him about my adventures. I’ll never forget what he said. “Fred,” he said,
Both spiders managed to build webs, even though the webs were slightly finer than on smiling, “you made this day a special day just by being yourself. Always remember, there’s
Earth. The study showed a great deal about the effects of microgravity on motor response (运 only one person in this whole world like you, and I like you exactly as you are.”
). Many years have passed since then, and today I host the television program Mister动反应
Rogers’ Neighborhood, seen by millions of children throughout America. There have been
changes over the years, but one thing remains the same: my message to children at the end of
11. What can we learn about the mouse astronaut
almost every visit. “There’s only one person in this whole world like you,” the kids will hear
A. It failed to come back alive.
me say, “ and people can like you exactly as you are.”
B. It couldn’t survive in microgravity conditions.
C. Its genes were similar to humans’.
14. Why did the writer enjoy his visits to the farm
D. It was the first animal to be sent to space.
A. There were old stone houses.
12. Laika was chosen by the scientists for all the following reasons EXCEPT ______.
B. He missed his grandfather a lot.
A. her good temperament B. her identity as a pet dog
C. He could experience new fun there.
C. her ability to deal with microgravity D. her good behavior
D. He was allowed to climb the walls.
13. What’s the purpose of sending the two spiders to space
15. What can be inferred about the writer from the passage
A. To compare the quality of webs they made on Earth and in space.
A. He didn’t know the possible danger of the stone walls.
B. To study the impact of cosmic radiation on their survival.
B. He didn’t expect his parents’ disagreement on wall climbing.
C. To see how fast they could build webs in space.
C. He became a TV program host with his grandfather’s help.
D. To see whether they could build webs in space.
D. He was backed up by his grandfather to follow his heart.
B 16. Which of the following can best describe the author’s grandfather
As a child, there was nothing I liked better than Sunday afternoons at my grandfather’s A. Adventurous. B. Open-minded.
farm in western Pennsylvania. Surrounded by miles of stone walls, the house and field C. Kind-hearted. D. Dependable.
provided endless hours of fun for a city kid like me. 17. Which is probably the best title for the text
Since my first visit to the farm, I had wanted more than anything to be allowed to climb A. Unforgettable Childhood B. Do Whatever You Like
the stone walls surrounding the houses. My parents would never agree because the walls were C. Just Be Yourself D. Like grandfather, like grandson
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C D. It’s the most popular app in the market.
People will tell you the only way to really learn a language is to completely immerse (浸 20. What should the users do first to learn with the app
入) yourself in a country where that language is spoken. Not all language learners, of course, A. Choose the place to learn a course.
will have the opportunity to spend some time in an immersion environment. But if you can’t B. Pick the language they want to learn.
actually fly across the world to learn a new language, you can always create an immersion C. Calculate the reading time.
environment where you can talk to native speakers. D. Choose a proper topic.
That’s where Babbel comes in. Babbel is one of the most popular language learning apps 21. Why does Babbel use speech recognition technology
on the market for studying new languages at your own pace. The app emphasizes (强调 ) A. To represent its additional features.
real-life conversational skills, so you won’t be stopped by grammatical structures and verb B. To meet the needs of native speakers.
patterns. C. To compare differences between words.
And right now, you can get 15% off a lifetime subscription ( ) to Babbel Language D. To make the pronunciation correct.订阅
D
Learning ($150; www.). A lifetime subscription is huge when it comes to
getting the most out of the app, since you’ll be able to return to lessons time and time again David Katz was unhappy about all the plastic (塑料) going into the ocean. To help solve
and brush up on whichever section or topic you might need. the problem, he had an unusual idea. Mr Katz calls his idea the “Plastic Bank”.
So how does it all work First, you’ll choose one of the 14 languages. While Babbel In poor countries, people are already working so hard just to get enough food to eat, to
offers familiar languages like Spanish and Italian, it also offers less commonly studied ones find a place to live, and to keep themselves healthy. Spending time on recycling (回收再利用)
like Polish, Indonesian and more. Once you pick your language, you’ll choose a wide range doesn’t make sense when you’re simply trying to survive.
of real-life topics. Each course takes about 10 to 15 minutes, so you can pick one up on the The purpose of the Plastic Bank is to use plastic to help these people solve the problems
way to work, during your lunch break, or really at any point you have some time to kill. that worry them the most—food, shelter, and health. So Plastic Bank adds a value to plastic
Beyond this, Babbel includes a ton of additional features tailored to making sure you waste by paying people to recycle it.
learn the language in a real, practical and accurate way. The app uses speech recognition The program began in 2015 in Haiti, a poor island nation that doesn’t have strong
technology to make sure your pronunciation is accurate compared with how native speakers programs for recycling. Plastic is often simply thrown out and ends up in rivers and the
would say certain words. ocean.
The Plastic Bank has opened 30 “markets” in Haiti. At Plastic Bank markets, people can
18. What does Paragraph 1 mainly tell us trade the plastic they’ve collected for money or other things they need. The Plastic Bank
A. The terrifying experiences of travelling. markets sell many things that local people need, such as cooking oil and heating oil. The
B. The importance of language learning environment. stores also allow plastic collectors to use the money they get to pay for health care or school.
C. Different ways to learn a new language. For those who have cell phones, Plastic Bank can put the money they get into a special bank
D. Opportunities to communicate with native speakers. account (账户) that they can control using an app. This keeps their money safe.
19. What can we know about Babbel To make sure the plastic gets recycled, the Plastic Bank works with those who agree to
A. It’s a tool for learning languages. use the plastic that is collected. For example, the British company Marks & Spencer and the
B. It is designed in various types. German company Henkel are both paying more to use recycled plastic from the Plastic Bank
C. It focuses more on grammar structures. in their products. When customers buy these products, which are labeled (标记 ) “Social
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Plastic”, they know that they are helping people in other parts of the world and keeping But these competitions don’t have to be negative or unhealthy. ___27___.
plastic out of the ocean. Understanding the Value of Exercise
The Plastic Bank has programs in Haiti, the Philippines, and Brazil. So far, the Plastic ___28___. In addition, many children who are active in sports are encouraged to eat
Bank has kept about 7 million pounds of plastic out of the ocean.
healthier foods, such as fruits and vegetables.
22. What might most Haitians think of plastic waste before 2015 Improving Self-respect
A. It was harmful. B. It was priceless. Improved self-respect is another benefit of competitive youth sports. ___29___. Even
C. It was valueless. D. It was recyclable. when he doesn’t win, he can learn a valuable lesson: that you can’t win every time. Losing
23. What makes the Plastic Bank successful in Haiti with his team can also increase self-esteem, as he learns to hold his head high and feel proud
A. The high value of the local plastic. for trying his best.
B. The local people’s basic needs for life. ___30___
C. The local people’s care for the environment.
Youth sports can help stop negative behavior, such as joining a gang, because
D. The great support from the local government.
24. How does the Plastic Bank deal with the plastic waste it collects competitive sports provide a way of expressing their energy, friendship and controlled
A. By storing the waste in its special bank. attacking behavior. Teens who have positive influences and friends feel less of a need to join
B. By using the waste to produce oil and gas. in risky behaviors.
C. By sending the waste to poor countries for reuse. A. Reducing Risky Behavior
D. By selling the waste to others who make products. B. Developing Character Values
25. What would be the best title for the text C. Here are the benefits of competitive sports for youth
A. Helping the poor. B. Cleaning the ocean. D. If you try your hardest, you have a better chance to succeed
C. Collecting plastic waste. D. Treating plastic like money.
E. When a child wins a game with his team, he feels recognized
F. Taking part in competitive youth sports burns calories and helps to keep slim
第二节 (共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)
G. Playing sports can help kids understand how competition works in a friendly environment
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分 37.5分)
All parents know that young children are always energetic, eager to run, jump and play.
第一节 完形填空 (共 15小题,每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5分)
Turning that natural energy into competitive sports can help keep kids active and healthy as
阅读下面短文,从短文后所给各题的 A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空
they petitive sports such as soccer, track, basketball and swimming can also help
白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
kids learn important life lessons about teamwork and fair play. ___26___.
When I was 12 years old, I already knew that my teen years were going to be the 31
Learning How to Compete
years of my life. I was a total outsider, bullied (欺凌) at school. I felt 32 alone in my
Joining in sports teaches children and teenagers how to compete in the real world. As
small town. 33 , by starting to do volunteer work when I was 14, I turned my 34
they grow older, they’ll face competition in school, in the workforce and other areas of life.
into a chance to help others. The opportunity to practice kindness made me feel like my life
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had a greater 35 . The more 36 energy shared, the more kindness and appreciation 第二节 语法填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
I 37 . I realized that my purpose in life would be to reach out to people, especially 根据句子结构的语法性,在下面空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中单词的适
teenagers, and help them feel less alone. 当形式填空,并将答案填写在答题卷标号为 46-55题的相应位置上。
Books were my true friends back then. I was so 38 that the authors wrote those 46. The teacher made ___________ clear that our credits would be hard-earned.
books. The 39 they offered me with their books saved my life. One of my biggest 47. My English teacher has ___________ unique way to make her class interesting.
dreams was to become an author so I could write books that would 40 other teenagers 48. To our ___________ (amaze), Tom, who used to be addicted to online games, is beyond
recognition as he is concentrating on his studies now.
the way those books helped me. 49. “We are living in a dangerous moment---an ___________ (extreme) dangerous
After 41 terrible experiences at school and at home, I made a choice to take the moment---in American history,” he told The Times.
positive road in the next steps of my journey. I have been a full-time 42 of teen novels 50. ___________ (compare) to our small flat, our uncle’s house seemed like a palace.
since 2007 and am grateful for this amazing opportunity to reach 43 to readers every 51. The train ___________ (schedule) to arrive at 10:15 am, but it’s running ten minutes late.
single day. 52. The man with ___________ you shook hands just now is our headmaster.
Kindness saved me 44 I needed help the most. Even small acts of kindness can 53. Muifa, a ___________ (power) typhoon, hit Zhejiang Province last week and caused
change someone’s life. You never know what someone else is 45 . But by practicing terrible damage there.
54. You need to take control ___________ your feelings and getting angry so easily.
daily kindness, you become an architect of positive change.
55. Joanna has carefully made ___________ (arrangement) for the meeting to be held next
31. A. best B. worst C. calmest D. craziest week.
32. A. completely B. obviously C. suitably D. amazingly
33. A. Therefore B. However C. Besides D. Finally
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 42.5 分)
34. A. appreciation B. impression C. problem D. organization
第一节 句子考查 (56—60题,每空 0.5 分。 61--63每小题 3分。满分 17.5分)
35. A. strategy B. personality C. purpose D. style
根据下面各个句子的要求,完成、改写或翻译句子。
36. A. formal B. suitable C. negative D. positive 56. Mike studies hard all the way, which ________ ________ ________ (树立榜样) to his
37. A. believed B. arranged C. received D. addicted sister and brother.
38. A. confused B. obvious C. fluent D. thankful 57. I have tried to learn Arabian but failed despite my best efforts.
39. A. comment B. recommendation C. accommodation D. kindness = I have tried to learn Arabian but failed ______ ______ ______my best efforts.
40. A. help B. master C. honor D. rescue 58. His teachers seem to have a high opinion of him.
41. A. shocking B. surviving C. calming D. sharing = ________ ________ ________ his teachers have a high opinion of him.
42. A. author B. summary C. shelter D. volunteer 59. Bob, who is fond of sports, likes swimming more than running.
43. A. away B. in C. for D. out = Bob, who is fond of sports, ________ ________ swim ________ ________ run.
44. A. when B. if C. although D. because 60. She got up early this morning so that she could get to school on time.
45. A. working out B. making a difference C. going through D. working on = _________ _________ _________ _________to school on time, she got up early this
morning.
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61. Yesterday I visited the museum. My grandfather used to work there 20 years ago. (用定语 Dear Li Hua,
从句合并) ___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
62. I recognized him in the crowd when I was walking in the street.( ) ___________________________________________________________________________对划线部分进行强调
___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________
63. Mrs Brown 建议他积极参加课外活动。(用 recommend翻译句子)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
第二节 应用文写作(满分 25分) ___________________________________________________________________________
假定你是 Emily,是你校英语社的负责人。最近你收到高一学生李华的信,诉说自
___________________________________________________________________________
己的困惑:英语特别难,上课听不懂,考试看不明,开学以来三次考试均不及格:她很
___________________________________________________________________________
焦虑,不知所措。请用英文给该同学回一封信,内容要点如下:
1. 表示理解并给予安慰; Yours’
2. 提出建议并说明理由。 Emily
注意:
1. 词数 80左右;
2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
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