高中试卷答案网赤峰第四中学2023-2024学年高一上学期12月期中考试
英语
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对仅读一遍。
1. What did Jenny do recently
A. She bought some clothes. B. She stopped exercising. C. She changed her diet.
2. What is the woman’s opinion about the man’s failure
A. It is helpful. B. It is unexpected. C. It is a great pity.
3. How many students took part in the race
A. 15. B. 25. C. 40.
4. Who are the speakers most probably
A. Teachers. B. Parents. C. Students.
5. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a hospital. B. In a school. C. In a stadium.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What are the speakers discussing
A. How to keep healthy. B. How to deal with stress. C. How to lose weight.
7. What does the woman decide to do
A. Drink some lemon tea. B. Have some fast food. C. Change her eating habits.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Brother and sister. B. E-friends. C. Classmates.
9. What does Mark look like
A. He wears glasses. B. He is quite tall. C. He has dark short hair.
10. What will the woman do next
A. Give Mark a telephone number.
B. Meet Mark at the airport.
C. Call Sam.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. When did the woman meet Linda
A. When they were both watching a play.
B. When they were both lining up for tickets.
C. When they were both waiting for the ladies’ room.
12. What did the woman and Linda do after the film
A. They had some coffee. B. They dined out. C. They went camping.
13. What do the woman and Linda both hate doing
A. Travelling. B. Cooking. C. Playing sports.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. How long did the woman spend on a holiday recently
A. 10 days. B. 14 days. C. 30 days.
15. What does the woman suggest doing
A. Travelling to New York. B. Holding a party. C. Visiting Mike.
16. What will Peter do this summer
A. Take a holiday. B. Look for a job. C. Deal with his work.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What was the first word the baby tried to say
A. Truck. B. Mother. C. Plane.
18. How old was the baby when he travelled to New York
A. About 18 months. B. About 21 months. C. About 24 months.
19. What did the father do to the baby at the airport
A. He corrected him.
B. He tried to stop him.
C. He took him to the bathroom.
20. Why did the mother pretend not to know the baby
A. She got angry with the father.
B. She was frightened by the noise.
C. She felt uneasy about the noisy baby.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Join the Games as a Volunteer
The success of Hangzhou Asia Games needs your contribution! Join the Games as a volunteer!
Games volunteers will participate in helping Games’ operations before, during and after the Games. Games volunteers will guide athletes around, welcome important people and help lost visitors...
Number of Volunteering Days and Daily Hours
*The Games will be held from September 23 to October 8 in 2022. In principle, Games volunteers will be requested to work throughout the Games.
*Games volunteers will work about eight hours per day including rest breaks. Actual shift lengths depend on event schedules, activities, activity sites, etc.
Age and Residential Requirements
Applicants must meet the following requirements:
*Born on or before September 1, 2004
*Not only are excellent interpersonal communication skills needed but a good knowledge of English as well.
*Equally importantly, you should be enthusiastic and positive.
*Those who have similar work experience are preferred.
Method and Applicant Categories
*Applications will be handed in online before October 31, 2021.
Offers and Confirmation
*Those applicants who attend the training courses and are assigned a volunteer role will be offered to become a volunteer.
Please note that the above offer will be cancelled (取消) in the event of any of the following:
*If the volunteer take part in any activity that damages the image of the Games.
*If the volunteer take part in any activity that severely damages teamwork.
*If any information contained in the original application form is clearly found to be false.
Items and Welfares Provided to Volunteers
Volunteers will be provided with a set of free clothes and meals during their volunteering days.
21. How long will a Games volunteer be asked to work
A. Before, during and after the Games.
B. From September 23 to October 8, 2022.
C. For eight hours.
D. Since October 31, 2021.
22. Who will be most likely to be accepted as a Games volunteer
A. Zhao, 16, who is fluent in English.
B. Qian,19, who has Olympic Games experience.
C. Sun, 15, who can communicate well.
D. Li, 18, who turns in his application on November 1, 2021.
23. What will Games volunteers be provided with for free
A. Accommodation. B. Adventure. C. Transportation. D. Clothing.
B
“Don’t quit that trip,” Mom said anxiously, as I tried to find the flight route through my tears. Doctors had just informed us that she had a deadly disease. My husband and I were set to leave for Cuba the next morning. As we boarded the airport shuttle, she said, “Don’t cry Jackie, try to have a good time, and bring me back a good CD. I’ll be here when you get back.”
That was Dec.31, 2019. She passed away on Feb.11, 2020. Looking through photos from our trip and listening to music gave her some of her final smiles. For the rest of my days, I’ll be reminded of the way she found joy in other people’s experiences and happiness.
When I was about 5, out shopping with my mom, I led her to the next passage, and cheerfully shouted, “Mom, look at this cute little lady!” That was an adult woman not much bigger than me. Instead of making me apologize to the woman straight away, she calmly said, “Jackie.” When I looked up to catch her eyes, she tugged on her right ear, which was a signal for “I will explain this to you when we get home.”
I remember when I was 8, my friend and I were going to play basketball through our local team. We were the only two girls on the team, but after the first game, my friend gave up. I didn’t want to become the only girl on the team so I wanted to give up. But my mom explained: You made a promise to the team; you need to stick it out for the season.
When I see the parents in my life filled with stress over keeping up with appearances and modern trends, I want to tell them to remember it’s them that their children will remember when they’re gone. Who they are, what they taught, and how they taught it. That’s what will outlive them in the hearts and minds of their children.
24. What made Mom smile in her darkest hour
A. Finding happiness from her daughter’s happy experiences.
B. Remembering joy from your own past.
C. Making good preparations for a trip.
D. Listening to good CD music about her daughter’s trip.
25. What did Mom do when Jackie was impolite to a lady
A. Recommending her to apologize to the lady at once.
B. Signaling to her to wait for an explanation at home.
C. Asking her to keep silent right away.
D. Beating her immediately for her bad manners.
26. What did Mom teach Jackie when she wanted to leave the team
A. One should keep one’s promise in life.
B. One has to be careful enough.
C. One needs to do his best.
D. One should never lose his confidence.
27.Which of the following will be the writer agree with
A. Keeping children following the modern trends.
B. Providing children with good conditions.
C. Teaching children personally at home.
D. Impressing being yourself on children.
C
Scientists in London say they have found the best diet for both humans and the planet. If the world followed the so-called “planetary health” diet, each year more than 11 million early deaths could be prevented.
Scientists say that the way we produce and eat food is very bad for the planet. For the health of the planet, they claim the new diet would reduce greenhouse gases and save more land, water and animals. This new food plan is the result of a three-year project organized by The Lancet, a health journal. It included 37 experts from 16 countries.
Tim Lang, a professor at Britain’s University of London, co-led the research. He said, “The food we eat and how we produce it determines the health of people and the planet, and we are currently getting this seriously wrong.” He added that the world’s population was expected to grow to 10 billion by 2050. “If we want to feed everyone,” he explained, “we all need to change what we eat and the way we eat by improving food production and reducing food waste.”
So, what do you eat on the planetary health diet The scientists who created this diet say it is largely plant-based but still has small amounts of dairy (奶制品), fish and meat. The diet calls for cutting red meat and sugar by 50 percent and doubling the number of nuts, fruit, vegetables and beans.
Food situations around the world are not equal. In certain areas, this would mean great changes. People in North America, for example, eat 6.5 times the recommended amount of red meat. On the other hand, people in South Asia eat only half the amount suggested by the planetary health diet.
The scientists admit their goal will be difficult to achieve. But for them doing nothing is also not an option. Willet said, “If we can’t quite make it, it’s better to try and get as close as we can.”
28. How will the planetary health diet save more lives
A. By offering enough food to people on the planet.
B. By saving more land, water and animals.
C. By helping to control population growth.
D. By improving food production and reducing food waste.
29. Which will be close to the planetary health diet
A. Nuts, fish, milk and vegetables.
B. Much sugar, beans, fruit and meat.
C. Vegetables, nuts, meat and sugary drinks.
D. Red meat, sugar, less milk and nuts.
30. Which of the following is the best title
A. The growing number of world population.
B. Food situations around the world.
C. Reducing greenhouse gases.
D. Healthy diet connected with the planet.
31. Where is the passage taken from
A. Travel brochure. B. Art magazine.
C. Science report. D. Short stories.
D
Jessica, a 26-year-old Spanish traveler, arrived in Peru in March, 2020, ready to climb the old Inca trail to Machu Picchu when a terrible disease struck Peru on March 16, the day Jessica was supposed to start hiking.
She decided to hang around for a few weeks, in hopes that it would reopen. She considered taking a flight back home to Spain, but found it to be very expensive. Days turned into weeks, which turned into months, and still Jessica waited.
She made the best of her time. She rented a small flat in the town and passed the time taking daily yoga classes, teaching local children how to box, and studying for various fitness and sports nutrition certification exams.
This fit nicely into her goal of learning boxing skills in various countries around the world before opening her own gym back home in Spain. She’d already spent time coaching in boxing gyms in Australia, Brazil, South Africa, Egypt, and Kenya, before arriving in Peru.
Eventually, Jessica’s patience paid off. On October 11, she was lucky enough to visit Machu Picchu and allowed to enter the ancient site. These magnificent, awe-inspiring, ancient wonders of the world are worth waiting and fighting for. It’s the good example of slow travel, travel so slow, in fact. She didn’t even go anywhere except to the village at the foot of the Andean mountains.
But this kind of slow travel is missing in today’s era of high-speed travel. We’ve grown used to buying cheap flights, sitting for a few hours in airplanes that zip around the globe, and place us in distant lands, where we rush around in a crowd of tourists as scheduled, ticking landmarks off a list before hopping back on the plane and rushing home.
Jessica’s adventure reminds me of historic modes of travel, when some people had to take a multi-month sea voyage in order to visit the continents far away. This built up the expectation, made the travelers get used to their destinations slowly, and opened doors for many new, unusual, and unplanned surprises along the way.
It’s how I wish I could travel.
32. Why didn’t Jessica return home after the terrible disease
A. Because she waited for the reopening of the city.
B. Because she had to take daily yoga classes.
C. Because she must coach in boxing gyms.
D. Because she couldn’t afford the flight ticket.
33. How was Jessica’s travelling in Machu Picchu
A. Impressive. B. Tough. C. Frightening D. Moving.
34. What can we infer from the last paragraph
A. Time waits for no man. B. No pains, no gains.
C. Hard work will pay off in time. D. Better late than never.
35. What’s the writer’s attitude to “slow travel”
A. Uninterested. B. Positive. C. Objective. D. Disappointed.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Society can seem glued to their cellphones with seemingly endless streams of tweets, Instagram photos and Facebook feeds. 36 It’s important that we connect, share and learn with social media, but it’s also important that we do these things responsibly.
Think about future possible influence of what you post. What we post never truly goes away on the Internet, so it’s important to take a second look at why we are posting something. Many times we take a picture, write a clever caption and then click “post” without thinking of the future possible influence of what we post. 37
Make sure you’re following trustworthy news sources. In the age of “fake news” we are covered with hundreds of news stories every day, some real some not so real. Make sure the news sources you’re following are either checked or have reliable and fact-checking reporters with good reputations (名声). 38 Make sure you have all of the facts straight before you share or comment on a story.
39 On average, we spend 2 hours and 22 minutes on social media every day. Taking down the time we spend on each of our social media apps can be a helpful way to better understand how much time we are spending staring at our cellphones or ipads. If you feel that you’re spending too much time looking through Facebook or Instagram, consider setting limits for yourself.
Understand you’re often seeing highlight reels (精彩片段集锦). Many people share their achievements and milestones on social media, and that’s a great thing! Sharing our successes because we’re proud and want to show that to the world can make us feel good. 40 It’s easy to compare ourselves to others, especially when we are going through tough times. But remember everyone goes through ups and downs and social media doesn’t always describe that exactly.
A. Make sure not to believe everything you read at first sight.
B. Pay attention to the time you’re taking on social media.
C. Avoid always reading things on social media.
D. However, nobody’s life is as perfect as it may seem on social media.
E. Think twice about why you are posting something and its influence.
F. Social media is most popular in the lives of younger generations.
G. We are impressed deeply by social media in our everyday lives.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A 3-year-old boy who was lost in the woods for 3 days is now safe at home. But Casey told his parents that he was not 41 in the rainy, freezing cold woods. He said he was with a friend—a 42 .
The child went 43 on January 22 while playing with friends at his grandmother’s house. When the other children 44 to the house and Casey didn’t. Hundreds of people 45 the search. Then on January 24, someone called the police saying he heard a child 46 in the woods. The police then found Casey at night. He was in good health. After being 47 carefully by the doctor, Casey was sent home with slight 48 .
Casey told the police that he had 49 with a black bear for two days and he called it his “ 50 “. His mother told reporters that Casey did not say how he was able to 51 in the woods for three days. 52 , she said, “He did say he had a friend in the woods, a bear, with him.” His mother 53 everyone who joined the search for her son. “We just want to tell everybody that we’re very thankful that you took the 54 out to search for Casey,” said his mother. “He is good. He’s already asked to 55 online cartoons.”
41. A. afraid B. amazed C. alone D. addicted.
42. A. dog B. cat C. toy D. bear
43. A. missing B. swimming C. hiking D. camping.
44. A. ran B. returned C. walked D. hurried.
45. A. participated in B. arrived in C. checked in D. handed in
46. A. laughing B. crying C. singing D. reading.
47. A. questioned B. examined C. practised D. commented.
48. A. confidence B. puzzles C. injuries D. efforts.
49. A. hung out B. left alone C. worked out D. cleaned up.
50. A. brother B. sister C. friend D. soldier.
51. A. play B. travel C. survive D. compete.
52. A. Therefore B. Instead C. Besides D. However.
53. A. warned B. thanked C. informed D. requested.
54. A. patience B. money C. kindness D. time.
55. A. challenge B. recognize C. watch D. contact.
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Mid-Autumn Festival is one of the most important festivals. It 56.___________ (celebrate) on the 15th day of the 8th lunar month. Chinese 57.__________ (legend) say that the moon is at its 58.___________ (bright) and roundest on this day. People gather with family and friends 59.__________ (admire) the bright full moon 60.__________ represents harmony and unity. Since ancient times, people 61.__________ (have) the habit of eating moon cakes on the Mid-Autumn Festival. Colorful lanterns are also displayed and carried during the festivities adding to the bright night sky. Other than moon viewing, people celebrate by 62.__________ (light) lanterns, performing lion and dragon dancers 63.__________ enjoying cultural activities and performances. The Mid-autumn Festival is 64.__________ great time to visit China and experience the rich culture and traditions. Chinese culture has 65.__________ a huge influence that the Mid-autumn festival has been introduced into the countries in East and Southeast Asia.
第四部分 写作（共3节，满分40分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
用方框内所给词组的合适形式填空。有一个词组为多余词组。并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置。
even if prefer ... to... make a difference be scheduled to be responsible for take control of
66. He __________ going hiking __________ taking a train tour for the following reasons.
67. In our music club, I __________ teaching the kids piano.
68. Volunteering at a local shelter in the past few years __________ in the lives of the homeless.
69. __________ I fail 100 times, I will not lose heart.
70. A lecture on safety __________ to be given in our school.
第二节（共5小题，每小题3分，满分15分）
根据所给汉语意思及提示词翻译句子。并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置。
71. 我来信目的是申请担任贵杂志的编辑。（apply）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
72. 老师建议我们边听课边记笔记。（recommend）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
73. 我们是因为他的勇气而钦佩他。（强调句）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
74. 这两个班将在下周一比赛争夺第一名。（现在进行时表将来的计划）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
75. 一开始，我觉得报名参加课程很难。（feel it +adj. + to do sth）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第四节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的英国好友Peter给你发了e-mail，表示要来中国参观西安兵马俑（the Terracotta Army），向你了解情况。请回信简单介绍兵马俑并提出建议。
内容包括：
1. 兵马俑简介。
2. 建议。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右。
2. 请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
听力原文及参考答案：
M: Have you seen Jenny recently She looks really fit and has good taste in clothes.
W: Yes. Three months ago, she cut out fast food, added healthy foods to her meals and started swimming.
M: Really No wonder she looks so different now.
(Text 2)
M: I failed English last year and have to take it again this year.
W: Maybe it’s for the best. You could take this chance to develop your English ability.
M: It makes sense in a way.
(Text 3)
W: How was the race going last Sunday
M: Great! The rain didn’t make much difference to the race.
W: How many students competed in it
M: Well, let me see. I believe that we had 25 competitors from the Middle East and 15 from Africa.
(Text 4)
W: Well, I think there are too many exams. Our kids are under too much stress at school.
M: That’s exactly what I think. There should be more learning rather than testing. We should talk with the teacher about it at the parent-teacher meeting.
(Text 5)
W: Well, all your tests are clear, so it seems you have now completely returned to health. How are you feeling
M: Much stronger, but I still get headaches now and then.
W: Well, I’ll give you some medicine. And I recommend you take up something like jogging.
M: Thanks for your advice.
(Text 6)
W: I feel terrible. I need to relax. Do you know any good ways to fight stress
M: Yeah, in fact, lemon tea makes you feel more relaxed. And also, you should eat low stress food like apples and grapes and eat more vegetables.
W: Sounds very strange. I guess hamburgers and French fries cause stress, right
M: Yeah. Hamburgers are high stress food.
W: Well, I guess I need to change my diet.
(Text 7)
W: It’s great that you’re coming to visit us at last, Mark.
M: Yeah. After communicating by email for so long, it will be good to meet.
W: Sorry I can’t come to the airport but Sam, my brother, will be there. He’s quite tall and he’s got straight short hair and he wears glasses.
M: OK. Tell Sam I’ve got dark hair— it’s quite short—and dark eyes. I’m quite slim and not very tall.
W: All right. You’ll have your mobile anyway. I’ll give you his number.
M: All right.
(Text 8)
M: Who’s your latest friend
W: Oh, my newest friend is Linda who is a wonderful woman that I met at the theatre standing in line for the ladies’ room. We were waiting there and we started to talk, and we both loved what we were seeing, and we went out for coffee after the film. We’ve gone out for dinner several times. We’re planning to take a camping trip this summer together.
M: What do you have in common
W: We’ve a lot in common. We both like travelling and playing sports. And we have similar taste in movies and plays. She doesn’t like cooking, me either.
(Text 9)
W: Do you realise that we’ve known each other for three years
M: Has it been that long
W: Yeah. And I remember when I ran into you, I was on my way to the school lab for an experiment. We hadn’t known each other before then even if we’d studied in the same school.
M: Yeah. And where have you been these days
W: I went to Australia for a holiday.
M: How long did you stay there
W: Ten days, exactly. But I’d like to stay for longer next time, say two weeks or a month. Hey, do you know Mike
M: Yes. He was in the same school as us.
W: Well, Mike said he’d be spending his vacation next month here in New York. How about a get-together party
M: That’s a wonderful idea! And we can call Peter.
W: Well, he just found a new job and his boss asked him to deal with the network this summer, and he really can’t get away.
M: Oh, that’s a pity. But we can visit him some day.
(Text 10)
W: There are many interesting stories about how a baby learns to say its first word. Now, Mark, would you like to share your story with us
M: OK. Here’s my story. was about eighteen months old, I think, and I had just started saying my first word. Every time a truck went by I would shout a word that sounded like “truck”. But to everyone else, it sounded nothing like it. My parents tried to correct me, but failed. Then... about three months later, we travelled to New York. As we were waiting for our plane at the airport, I saw the largest truck in the world! I had to tell someone about this! I turned to my father and shouted, “Truck! Truck!!” My father tried hard to shut me up, but I was so excited and I kept shouting my special word. My poor mother pretended not to know this baby and ran into the ladies’ room, where she hid until I finally stopped. Well. I learned how to say “truck” correctly, and soon I was talking well compared to other children. However, my parents will never forget the very first word I produced in my life.
1-5. BCACB 6-10. ACACB 11-15. ABACB 16-20. BCACB
21-23. ABD 24-27. ABAD 28-31. BADC 32-35. DACB 36-40. GEABD
41-55. CDABA BBCAC CDBDC
56-65. is celebrated; legends; brightest; to admire; which; have had; lighting; and; a; such
66. prefers... to... 67. am responsible for 68. has made a difference 69. Even if 70. is scheduled to
71. I’m writing to apply for the post as an editor in your magazine. (... apply to be an editor in ...)
72. My teacher recommends that we take notes as we listen. ( ... recommend us to take...)
73. It is for his courage that we admire him so much.
74. The two classes are competing for the first prize next Monday.
75. At the beginning, I felt it really hard to sign up for courses.
Dear peter,
Glad to know from your e-mail that you are viewing the Terracotta Army in Xi’an, I’m writing to share with you some details.
The Terracotta Army, one of the greatest discoveries of 20th century, was built as part of the tomb of Qin Shi Huang. It is widely recognized by some researchers that each statue is a copy of a real soldier. By the way, I’d like to recommend you take some clothes suitable for winter to keep you warm. More importantly, travelling responsibly will make a difference to the attraction. Welcome to experience the shock with your own eyes. And wish you a pleasant journey.
Yours,
Li Hua
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